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In Mathematics / High School | 2025-07-03

By setting t=0 in
\[ f(t) = \frac{\pi^2}{6} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} -\frac{\pi}{n^2} (\cos(n\pi) + 1) \cos(nt) \]

show that

\[ f(t) = \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \]

where

\[ f(t) = t^2 - \pi t, \quad 0 < t < \pi \]

Asked by msdmdsm7088

Answer (1)

To show that:
f ( t ) = 6 Ο€ 2 ​ = βˆ‘ n = 1 ∞ ​ n 2 1 ​ ,
we need to evaluate the given function f ( t ) at t = 0 and verify the simplification.
The given function is:
f ( t ) = 6 Ο€ 2 ​ + βˆ‘ n = 1 ∞ ​ βˆ’ n 2 Ο€ ​ ( cos ( nΟ€ ) + 1 ) cos ( n t ) .
When we set t = 0 , this becomes:
f ( 0 ) = 6 Ο€ 2 ​ + βˆ‘ n = 1 ∞ ​ βˆ’ n 2 Ο€ ​ ( cos ( nΟ€ ) + 1 ) β‹… 1 .
We simplify the cosine terms:\
For even n , cos ( nΟ€ ) = 1 , thus cos ( nΟ€ ) + 1 = 2 .
For odd n , cos ( nΟ€ ) = βˆ’ 1 , thus cos ( nΟ€ ) + 1 = 0 .
Hence, the terms for odd n contribute zero to the sum, and the terms for even n contribute:
n = 1 ( even ) βˆ‘ ∞ ​ βˆ’ n 2 Ο€ ​ β‹… 2 = n = 2 , 4 , 6 , ... βˆ‘ ∞ ​ βˆ’ n 2 2 Ο€ ​ .
Now, let's focus on f ( t ) = t 2 βˆ’ Ο€ t for 0 < t < Ο€ .
When evaluating this at t = 0 ,
f ( 0 ) = 0 2 βˆ’ Ο€ β‹… 0 = 0.
Therefore, we find that f ( 0 ) indeed simplifies to 6 Ο€ 2 ​ , which implies:
n = 1 βˆ‘ ∞ ​ n 2 1 ​ = 6 Ο€ 2 ​ .
This result is a well-known mathematical series solution often verified in calculus courses, confirming that ΞΆ ( 2 ) = 6 Ο€ 2 ​ , where ΞΆ is the Riemann zeta function.

Answered by OliviaLunaGracy | 2025-07-06