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In Mathematics / Middle School | 2014-01-16

Are [tex]$\frac{3}{4}$[/tex] and [tex]$\frac{3}{8}$[/tex] equivalent fractions? Explain why or why not.

Asked by slhsinger68

Answer (3)

No, they are not equivalent. The numerators are equals, but the denominators are not, they are not equivalent. If the first one would be 6/8, they would be equivalent, because we can simplify the fractions by 2 and we got 3/4 again. Good luck !

Answered by PopAdrian | 2024-06-24

The fractions 3/4 and 3/8 are not equivalent fractions.
To determine if two fractions are equivalent, we need to compare their simplified forms.
Let's simplify both fractions :
3/4 cannot be simplified further because 3 and 4 have no common factors other than 1.
For 3/8, we can simplify it by dividing both the numerator and denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 1:
(3 รท 1) / (8 รท 1) = 3/8
As we can see, the simplified form of 3/8 is still 3/8, which is different from 3/4.
Therefore, 3/4 and 3/8 are not equivalent fractions.
To learn more on Fractions click:
https://brainly.com/question/10354322
#SPJ6

Answered by pukhrajvt | 2024-06-24

The fractions 4 3 โ€‹ and 8 3 โ€‹ are not equivalent because they have different denominators. When finding a common denominator, 4 3 โ€‹ converts to 8 6 โ€‹ , which is not equal to 8 3 โ€‹ . Thus, they represent different parts of a whole.
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Answered by PopAdrian | 2024-09-04